Compare Why Did China Develop And Industrialize First

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Why did the West and not China develop and industrialize first? -------------------By: Maggie

As late as the end of first millennium of era, the civilizations of Asia were well ahead of Europe both in knowledge and wealth. In the 10th century (which we called Middle Ages), Europe was undergoing a dark age since the corruption of Greece and Rome happened in 476 B.C. Between 476 B.C~1000 A.D , Western Europe had regressed back to their origin point. Its economy retreat into generalized autarky which only traded little with other societies, and they exchanged largely human beings with the goods they wanted from outside. Also, their culture was almost destroyed by the invaders from barbarians. At that time, China managed in well-behaved and …show more content…
(This data was collected in year 2011)
Through the image, we can see the big differences between them-------America is much ahead of China in most of domains.
Why did that happened? What led the West to become so influential and powerful in these 500 years? How long will it sustain its supremacy? Why did the West and not China develop and industrialize first?
One commenter [@file124528] had given his opinions.
“The United States has an elected government. The American government is legitimate. And there is a separation of legislative, judicial, and executive powers. China is ruled by the Chinese Communist Party. There is no separation of powers. No checks and balances. No independent press.”
The famous historian Niall Ferguson had identified 6 point of the reasons why west had become so strong, he named these “The Six Killer Applications: -Competition -Science -Democracy -Medicine -Consumerism -Work
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