Arendt stresses the difference between the crimes committed by Eichmann and the crime of piracy. Piracy constitutes crimes committed at sea, where the perpetrator holds no ties to a flag or organized community (1994:261). During the war, Eichmann was under German authority, where he held ties (1994:262). He did not commit crimes in the name of himself, but rather in the name of Germany and Hitler. A person charged with the crime of piracy commits crimes for their own self-interest. Eichmann held no hatred towards the Jews, therefore he was not acting out of self-interest when he sent …show more content…
The Jewish people do not represent the universal world. I think they are describing a cultural relativist claim . This would not be accepted either, because during the war, the Jewish people did not share the same cultural values and customs. Eichmann did not commit crimes in a specifically Jewish community as they were dispersed throughout Europe. Arendt would argued against this relativist idea, saying there does not need to be a geographical Jewish territory, but rather that the idea of territory has an extended definition. I will discuss my counter argument to this theory later