3. Is John Locke’s theory of property rights tenable? Construct an objection to the theory. Is the objection fatal, or is there a way to preserve Locke’s theory in spite of it—whether in whole, or in spirit?
Subjugation
Thesis
Locke’s theory of property seems to be caught in a catch 22. As a descriptive theory it is unable to explain historical subjugations that did occur but as a normative theory it is perfectly willing to allow other forms such as “wage slavery”. However, “wage slavery” makes everyone mutually better off so is not a terribly strong weakness for the theory.
The descriptive
A Lockean view of property claims that property originates when someone mixes their labor with something else that is previously unowned. Among the specifications I…show more content… The labor of his body, and the work of his hands, we may say, are properly his.” (sec. 27.)
Adding this as a part of a descriptive theory is not in line with what we observe in the world. In the world not everyone owns there body or there labor. The repression of women and slavery do exist. In the case of repression of women father could sell off daughters into marriage where they would become as good as property to the man they wed.
Now, Locke was writing at a different time so perhaps when he says “God, who hath given the world to men in common” (Sec. 26.) he literally means men and men alone in which case the subjugation of women would not be a problem (from a descriptive point of view). But then what of slavery? Men are capable of being coerced into using their labor and as a byproduct get none of the things that ultimately come out of it. If it true that every man is his own property and deserves the byproduct of his labor then slavery under a Lockian framework cannot exists, yet we clearly observe that it does exists in the real world.
