First, England and Spain’s methodology of profiting from the New World is more similar than different. They both …show more content…
Spain had missionaries to taught and convert the Natives as well as African slaves to Catholic. Spain accepted the Natives to be part of Catholic, “Spanish men married Native women in California and New Mexico and converted them to Spanish ways”(Loewen, 128). In contrast, England did not accept Natives to be part of Christianity, Protestant, or as their “equal”. English settlers didn't want to acculturate or associate with the Indians, “From the starts, white conduct hindered peaceful coexistence…the precedent established on the Atlantic coast- that Indians were not citizens of the Europeans’ state and lacked legal rights- prevented peaceful White-Indian throughout the colonies and later in the United States…French penetrate Indian societies, Spanish acculturated them, and the British expelled them…English colonists quickly moved to forbid interracial marriages”(Loewen, 128). As stated in the quotations, English did not want to associate with the Natives in any way possible because Natives are “savages” in the colonists’ perspective and the difference of racial identity between the Natives and colonists. Similarly, one reason why Spain and England traveled and colonized the New World is for the purpose of