American History Dbq

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Superiority cannot be rectified or extensively accepted based on the confidence that a single world force claims that it was dominant prior to the 1600s. Limited knowledge was understood of the world that existed past the Atlantic Ocean; preposterously Europeans believed land did not exist between the shores of the Iberian coastline to the bellowing seaboards of Asia. How can it be argued Europeans were superior when their knowledge of the world’s geography was widely distorted? The two hemispheres of the known world were completely isolated before the discovery of the Americas by Christopher Columbus in 1492. The peoples of both Europe and the Americas molded worlds that adapted to their environment, lifestyles, and political endeavors exclusive …show more content…
James Davidson in US: A Narrative History writes about the Olmecs who molded the powerful trading town of Teotihuacán. This town “…spanned more than 10 square miles and had a population of perhaps a quarter million—larger than that of Rome ” in approximately 650 CE. The powerful European city of Rome looks dwarfed now with the knowledge that a similar city thrived in central America at the same time. Native peoples also developed agriculture innovations. When the Europeans arrived, they discovered corn, potatoes, and beans all cultivated in their own unique place in the Americas. These crops were carefully prepared to achieve the best yield possible. These nutrient-rich harvests were brought back to Europe and they became “…integral to diets all over the world” and “…crops improved diets and overall health. ” Each Indian tribe created distinct and tailor-made living systems. This is presented with a map in Davidson’s US: A Narrative History, showing where agriculture, hunting/gathering, and fishing living methods were at their richest. Each area of Americas flourished; certain living structures weren’t forced, if certain things did not work, they adapted. Remarkably, the Aztecs and Europeans shared similar social class ideals and “…were robustly expansionist. ” Matching public ideals were shared between both parts of the world. If both sides were on the same intellectual level how can it be …show more content…
Native peoples prior to 1600 were just as advance if not more as their counterparts. The claim that Europeans were more superior prior to 1600 can be out rightly dismissed. At certain points of time greater advancements of either side can claim dominance. However, both Europe and the Americas fluctuated much the same in both political gain, intellectual thoughts, and innovations. Neither Europe or the Americas can claim greater superiority, in fact, they are strikingly
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