In the 1600’s, women were not allowed the same rights as men were. Women were lucky if they were given minimal education in their household. Today, there are still conflicts regarding equality in education between men and women. There are over “31 million girls of primary school age out of school” (1), according to the Education For All Global Monitoring Report. Nigeria, Pakistan, and Ethiopia contain …show more content…
According to ThinkProgress.org, “15 percent of American women…have been passed over for a promotion or an opportunity at work because of their gender” (Covert, 1). This proves that men are still thought of as better workers even if they are less qualified for the job than women. This is very parallel to England in the 1600’s to the early 1800’s because only men were allowed to get jobs or start businesses. This is why Queen Elizabeth never married- she knew that if she did, her husband would be considered higher, smarter, and more qualified than her so she would lose all of her …show more content…
They could not vote or contribute in the government because they had no legal authority. In 1776, Abigail Adams, John Adam’s wife, sent John a letter asking him to “remember the ladies” when the Second Continental Congress was “drafting a new “code of laws” for the fledgling nation” (History.com Staff, 1). Although she had helped her husband with a lot of his work, she had to stay at home to maintain the household while he contributed to the government. This relates to politics today because even at present, there are still more men than women in politics. Women have since increased their political activity, but there is still a long way to go to achieve parity with men. Less than 25% of women hold state legislative offices. Cynthia Terrell, chair of FairVote’s Representation 2020 project, says that “women won’t achieve fair representation for nearly 500 years” (Hill, 1). Although women are now allowed to partake in politics, they are vastly unrepresented in our government